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spongebobish18 karma

I don’t know how pertinent to the op this question is but an argument a homophobic/transphobic highschool history teacher made and the ridiculousness of the point always stayed with me. The point he made was that there’s a correlation between the downfall of civilization and the advent of gender confusion/transgenderism/sexual deviance(homosexuality? Idk the whole thing is just a blur). Examples he gave was ancient greece, rome, middle ages(?). Again the whole thing is a blur. So I guess my question is how accurate is this statement, and if it does have any sort of correlation why or how?