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reenign315 karma

Why does the D2 partial agonism and 5HT2A antagonism of cariprazine effective for bipolar depression AND mania, but the D2 partial agonism and 5HT2A antagonism of aripiprazole is only effective for mania?

I struggle to understand why the identical method of action is so stark contrast.

I may lose insurance soon and be forced to switch from cariprazine back to aripiprazole, which only partially worked for me.

TIA