From what I understand, Implicit Association Tets (IAT) are conducted to reach many of the conclusions on the subject of implicit bias. IATs have been pretty unreliable, and historically have not shown any significant correlation with behavior outside of the test lab. What techniques were used to simulate real world behaviors, as opposed to biases seen on small sample sized tests, and how do you prove these biases aren't measuring in-group vs out-group biases, but more specifically racism, sexism, etc?
Additionally, what future do you believe this research will have on the real world. I ask because even strong proponents of IAT studies do not believe they should be used in the courtroom, the ultimate test for judging behavior. If it is not recognized as trusted science, what exactly are the purpose of implicit bias studies? We struggle to fix individual cases of racism. What makes anyone think a problem affecting 100% of people can be fixed if it can barely be proven to exist? Do you fear that calling people unknowingly biases (typically attached with a demeaning term, like racist, sexist, homophobe, etc) is in itself a form of bigotry? We don't accuse people of crimes in this manner. Proven, intentional behavior is the only standard we can judge people on, do you not agree?
quixotic_pacifist3 karma
From what I understand, Implicit Association Tets (IAT) are conducted to reach many of the conclusions on the subject of implicit bias. IATs have been pretty unreliable, and historically have not shown any significant correlation with behavior outside of the test lab. What techniques were used to simulate real world behaviors, as opposed to biases seen on small sample sized tests, and how do you prove these biases aren't measuring in-group vs out-group biases, but more specifically racism, sexism, etc?
Additionally, what future do you believe this research will have on the real world. I ask because even strong proponents of IAT studies do not believe they should be used in the courtroom, the ultimate test for judging behavior. If it is not recognized as trusted science, what exactly are the purpose of implicit bias studies? We struggle to fix individual cases of racism. What makes anyone think a problem affecting 100% of people can be fixed if it can barely be proven to exist? Do you fear that calling people unknowingly biases (typically attached with a demeaning term, like racist, sexist, homophobe, etc) is in itself a form of bigotry? We don't accuse people of crimes in this manner. Proven, intentional behavior is the only standard we can judge people on, do you not agree?
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