I mean, if the victim would give off signals of consent, while they don’t feel that way, and the perpetrator has no intent of going against one’s will, can it still be classified as sexual assault? And why?
(Hypothetical situation of course, mainly related to the skepticism around victims speaking out)
Perhaps not a psychological question, more about law, but I’m interested in your view on it none the less, since you are quite involved in the subject of SA.
Thank you for the AMA :)
piesmacker2 karma
What is a good definition of sexual assault?
I mean, if the victim would give off signals of consent, while they don’t feel that way, and the perpetrator has no intent of going against one’s will, can it still be classified as sexual assault? And why? (Hypothetical situation of course, mainly related to the skepticism around victims speaking out)
Perhaps not a psychological question, more about law, but I’m interested in your view on it none the less, since you are quite involved in the subject of SA. Thank you for the AMA :)
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