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hobbes61911022 karma

Hi Reza,

I haven’t read the book yet but I own a copy and am looking forward to starting it!

On The Daily Show you talked about how Jesus was Jewish and that, if he were alive today, Jesus (“the illiterate, uneducated Jewish peasant”) would be confused by the fact that he is interpreted as a “demi-god” or God-man because that has no scriptural precedence. So I’m wondering this:

  1. How does today’s interpretation of Jesus “the demi-god” differ from the Old Testament prophecies of the Messiah?

  2. If you we take into account that everything in the Bible is not meant to be taken literally - Do you think Jesus actually proclaimed himself to be the Messiah because he believed he was the Messiah? Or is that a title he assumed to lend himself more legitimacy? Or was it a title ascribed to him afterwards by his followers?

Thanks for your time!

EDIT: Just to be clear: Reza used the word "demi-god" in the interview. Not my word choice.