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bhalperin7 karma

You often state that perhaps nominal wage compensation targeting would be superior to NGDP targeting.

But as far as I can tell, the two targets are justifiable on very different grounds:

  1. Nominal wage targeting is preferable if wages are the stickiest price.

  2. NGDP targeting is preferable if sticky debt prices ('non-state contingent nominal contracts' a la Koenig/Sheedy/Bullard) are most important; or is preferable on Yeager/Selgin monetary disequilibrium grounds.

But the two are quite different animals, are they not? I don't think we should casually conflate the two as being all that similar, when the two proposed policies have quite different justifications.

Thanks!

bhalperin1 karma

Thanks!